dear mufti, salam.
I have a very confusing situation and your help and guidance is greatly appreciated.
firstly, I have gave talaaq to my wife. but the way talaaq was given was very confusing.
I began uk court proceedings, taking into consideration that uk legal seperation and divorce was not an islamic talaaq, and therefore even if I had that seperation from uk courts, islamically I would still be married to her as I did not give her talaaq.
secondly, during uk procedures, my uk divorce was stalled by her solictors because they said I would not give her an islamic talaaq and upon my giving her an islamic talaaq would they permit for my uk court decree of divorce to be granted. upon having this from them, I decided to issue her with a divorce, which from my part was more of a khullah, as it was them who requested it.
now after two yrs, in the uk system we are still not divorced. over monetary matters, but we have through intermediaries decided to somewhat reconcile.
talaaq was probably given to her once on paper. and then reaffirmed verbally infrtTn of the witnesses, I cannot even rememmber reaffirming it. but now what I would like to do is reconcile and confirm the following:
she has obviously gone over her iddat period.
is it permissible for me to remarry her or does she have to halala?
she is adamant that she did not request the talaaq, rather her solicitirs requested it.
does this mean that the talaaq is invalid? does it stand?
where do we stand with reconciliation?
your help and guidance is much appreciated.
jazaak allah khair.