I have recently asked a detailed question about my ocd, waswasas and fear of divorce. This is a followup question.
My understanding is that it would not even if intent was there because the thought is still in the mind and expressions and gestures used are not metaphors for divorce at all and no words whatsoever were spoken.
Is my understanding correct? Would a divorce have occurred in such scenarios?
Also, these thoughts and doubts about divorce are making me insane. What should I do?
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Question ID: 17441