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Question ID: 32730
 ▲ 0 ▼ ♥ 0 Salaams I pray you are well. A father has left money for his son. In 1995 the father put 850,000 rupees into an interest based profit scheme. After 20 years the interest profit totalled the full amount to about 4,800,000 rupees. 1)1f the son verbally says : “The money is halal for me. The wealth that my father has acquired is haraam because of the way in which it was acquired, i.e., he earned it in a haraam manner. This wealth is haraam only for the one who earns it, but for the one who takes it from him in a permissible way, it is not haraam for him.” Does the son become a kafir by believing or verbally saying the above? 2) Does the son become a kaafir If the son verbally says that: “The fact that the pakistan currency has fallen in value due inflation. Therefore one is allowed to recover the original value invested. One don’t have to only recover the numerical value that was initially invested. For example In 1995 the value of the rupees was strong. The rupees rate to the English pound was £1=55 rupees. Therefore 850,000 rupees was £15,454 in the year 1995. After 20 years, in 2015 the interest profit scheme has now given a total profit amount of 4,800,000 rupees. At this moment in time in 2015 the value of the rupees to the pound is weak. It is about £1=158 rupees. As the father invested £15,454(850,000 rupees) at that time in1995, I think it would make sense to remove that as the halal amount now in rupees. For example £15,454×158 rupees= 2,441,732 rupees- (current rupees value to the pound of 2015.) Or to use a stable economy like gold value then and now to calculate the actual amount invested that was halal.” Jazakallah Marked as spam Asked on March 19, 2017 1:20 am 32 views
 ▲ 0 ▼ ✔ Private answer 1) No. 2) No. Marked as spam Answered on March 29, 2017 7:08 pm