Question ID: 28749
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A person bought goods by indicating towards it, however the quantity of the article was not specified, neither by weight nor measure. Alternatively, two persons traded one type of commodity for another (amongst themselves) without specifying the quantities, but this trade was effected by indication (e.g. One says >I trade this box of pens for that heap of wheat). Are these two sales valid?

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Asked on May 11, 2008 12:00 am
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Yes both sales are valid. Because the exchange which is indicated towards (either the currency or solid article), does not necessitate a description of its quantity for the permissibility of the sale. Because surely an indication is in itself a means of description (Kitaabul Buyoo).
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Answered on May 11, 2008 12:00 am