Question ID: 29689
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If husband in anger and without intention wrote the word 3 tallaq and sent sms to wife, is the Talaaq valid? because he has no intention neither uttered in past and wrote the spelling of Talaaq as “tallaq” the meaning of which might be different in urbi, please reply.

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Asked on February 17, 2014 4:32 pm
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If he wrote the word 'tallaq' even though it is spelt wrong it is still valid.
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Answered on February 17, 2014 4:32 pm