Question ID: 29627
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ASALAMUALAIKUM Mufti Sahib,

I had a dream about the word haraam. So, my question is if someone utters “haraam” word then in his head or heart he says “to his wife” wtihout any intention of talaq. Does this consitiutes talaq? I heard and read online that intention is need in this word as this is kinaya word. However, from couple websites online and one mufti said talaq occurs doesn’t matter what the intention was. Can you please confirm this for me?

Thank you.

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Asked on February 3, 2014 11:16 pm
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Private answer
The correct view is that intention matters on 'Kinaya word'.
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Answered on February 3, 2014 11:16 pm