Question ID: 23344
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Assalmu-alaykum
Refering to question 4318- how can a husband be allowed to be intimate with both wives at the same time, that means the wives will see each other nude and there may be possibility of homosexuality.
Moulana did you confuse it with another question or are you interpreting it differently.
Salaams

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Asked on July 1, 2010 12:00 am
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Kindly refer to the revised question 4318 for full answer.
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Answered on July 1, 2010 12:00 am