Question ID: 24656
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salaams mufti saab.
I am a frequent reader of your website and I actually look forward to reading it every morning before I start work.but after reading so many questions and answers I now have a doubt in my mind.
14 years ago my wife and I had a argument and during that time I gave her 1 talaaq
we seperated for a few days and I went to her parents home and took her back and made up and reconciled,I read a previous question where someone had given his wife 1 talaaq a baain and you said she can re marry anyone she wants to because they are divorced, no need to give 3 because it does the same job.
1. am I divorced from my wife, I only gave her 1 talaaq (i dont know whether it was baain or what, because I dont know what baain is.
2. my intention was to scare her,thats why I gave only 1,I never meant to divorce her completle
3. we are now married for 14 years and have 7 kids together.
I am a little worried and confused,are we living in haraam or not?
can you PLEASE advise me on the above as it is now causing me mental strain and anguish that perhaps i did the wrong thing.
PS. when I gave her the 1 talaaq,at that time I never meant to divorce her,just make her scared that she will become obedient and stop being stubborn.
shukran
salaams

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Asked on October 23, 2010 12:00 am
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Private answer
1) As you reconciled and no 'bain' was stipulated
2) Thus one Talaaq occured
3) You are not living in Haraam
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Answered on October 23, 2010 12:00 am