Question ID: 18303
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Respected mufti
. In Surah Nisa the following verse comes
. A person asked me why is this sexual relationship with slaves?
without nikah isn’t it zina?
why ayat still there and hukam mansookh?
If we were to be in this slaves era again would it be ja’iz for us too?

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Asked on September 24, 2014 7:57 pm
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Private answer
1. 'Slaves' are owned property of their masters.
2) Due to circumstances it can be acted upon.
3) Yes.
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Answered on September 24, 2014 7:57 pm