Question ID: 19849
0
0

Aslaamualaikum
I pray you are well. Sorry to bother you again. A little change to the previous question.

1)
If a person writes a question/email to a fatwa service, maulana or a mufti. And he writes in his question/email that he has said and/or written the words ,’divorce’, and ‘divorced’ or a statement of divorce such as, ‘you are divorced’, to his wife or to himself. But in reality he has not said and/or written these words or statements to his wife or himself but he still wrote in his question/email that he did.
Does this cause talaaq?

Jazakallah

Marked as spam
Asked on April 26, 2016 2:24 am
142 views
0
Private answer

No.

Marked as spam
Answered on May 16, 2016 8:53 pm