Question ID: 26991
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Dear Shaykh
. Al-salam alaikum

I would like to know if the ‘halal’ or ‘haram’ qualification of some money (or property) depends only on the way it was acquired or if, on the contrary, we also have to consider other elements related to the origin of that money. For instance, if I work at an honest job (i.e. and my day-to-day work complies with the shariah) and I get paid by some money whose origin is haram (because my employer deals in haram transactions, in which I am not involved), what is the status of the money that I earn? Someone told me that my salary is halal, because I earned it via halal means, regardless of the previous source of the money.

The principle used to justify seems to consider ONLY the VERY LAST PASSAGE in the chain of transactions, totally disregarding whatever comes before.
Is this principle valid according to the shariah?

Something rather shocking (at least to me), which I recently heard is that a mosque accepted a donation from a business that is totally haram. The reasoning given by the mosque managers was the same: yes, the money was haram for those involved in that business, because they earned it in a haram way, but it is halal for us because we have received it as a donation, which is a halal way of acquiring a property. If this reasoning is indeed correct, what about all the taqwa and wara’ rulings of the saliheen of the past, who abstained from taking something unless they were sure that it was not from a haram source?

Please, in your fatwa mention what is the mainstream understanding of Sunni ulamaa’ on this matter, or the main positions of the ulama, in case there is a difference of opinions among them.

Jazaka Allahu khairan
. Salam

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Asked on July 12, 2013 10:29 pm
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Private answer
The principle as stated is valid. However one is Fatawa and the other Taqwa. The pious do not accept that which is doubtful. Safar at times to use the principle.
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Answered on July 12, 2013 10:29 pm