Question ID: 26328

. my question is regarding 10953

1) You had said about intention of divorce…but intention was clearly not to divorce at that very moment but later…even though it will count?

2) One more thing is that I was unaware of the shariah rule of effect of these words invoking divorce. I had the concept in my mind that divorce can happen only through court?

3) A person knowing the effect of the words divorce and still saying it and the one who is unaware of it. Do both have same effect?

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Asked on April 9, 2014 2:31 pm
Private answer

1) Yes.
2) Not correct.
3) Yes.
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Answered on April 9, 2014 2:31 pm