Question ID: 28630
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If a person sells an item, but has not taken possession of the price. Will it be permissible for him to deal in that money (not yet received) before actually taking physical possession of it?

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Asked on June 26, 2008 12:00 am
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Private answer
Yes (Kitaabul Buyoo).
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Answered on June 26, 2008 12:00 am