Question ID: 28796
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Regarding 40days issue, led to believe that a Mufti said this was justified because by the 40th day the body is completely decomposed so that’s why it is permissible to have faateha PLEASE COMMENT URGENTLY?

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Asked on April 22, 2008 12:00 am
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What is the logically relationship and link between decomposion by 40th day and 'Faatheha'. Also when pious die the decomposion - then why 'Faatheha' for Wali, Auhlia, Ambiyaa etc.
This is non-Shaari based talk.
 
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Answered on April 22, 2008 12:00 am